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EBVS European College diplomas Wildlife, Zoo Animal & Conservation Medicine: practice questions

EBVS European College diplomas (e.g. DipECVS, DipECVIM-CA) · Europe · European Board of Veterinary Specialisation and the individual colleges

Original practice questions written to the published syllabus · not past papers
10worked here, free
73written to this exam in this subject
10syllabus units

What this subject covers

Health care of zoo and free-ranging wild animals: management and nutrition, chemical immobilisation, the major wildlife diseases, wildlife law and forensics.

In the exams: SAVC wildlife 10; ACZM and ECZM specialist colleges

Where the 73 questions fall

How our questions for EBVS European College diplomas spread across the units of Wildlife, Zoo Animal & Conservation Medicine. Difficulty: 11 easy, 38 medium, 24 hard.

Zoo animal management12
Zoo animal nutrition9
Tuberculosis and anthrax in wildlife9
Rabies and FMD in wildlife9
Chemical immobilisation8
Wildlife legislation8
Capture myopathy6
Wildlife forensics6
Zoo animal breeding5
KFD and surra in wildlife1

10 practice questions, worked

Choose an answer, then open the working. Each explanation says why the right answer is right and why the others are not.

1 · Zoo animal nutrition · hard

A marmoset colony housed indoors without ultraviolet light shows fractures and bowed limbs despite receiving vitamin D2. What is the most likely explanation?

  1. Marmosets cannot absorb calcium at all and require intravenous calcium daily
  2. The fractures are due to vitamin C deficiency, which marmosets synthesise poorly
  3. New World monkeys need D3 or UVB, not D2
  4. Vitamin D2 is toxic to marmosets and has caused a hypercalcaemic bone disease
Answer and working

C. New World monkeys need D3 or UVB, not D2

New World primates use vitamin D2 poorly and need dietary vitamin D3 or ultraviolet B exposure; otherwise they develop metabolic bone disease. Calcium is absorbed normally when vitamin D3 is adequate, D2 is not the cause of toxicity here, and vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy rather than these bowed limbs.

Further reading: Kleiman, Thompson & Kirk Baer, Wild Mammals in Captivity

2 · Chemical immobilisation · hard

A white rhinoceros immobilised with an opioid combination has a low arterial oxygen level and laboured breathing. Which response is most appropriate?

  1. Rolling it onto its back to give the lungs more room to expand
  2. Giving a dissociative antagonist to reverse the opioid's respiratory effect
  3. Giving more opioid to deepen anaesthesia and relax the respiratory muscles
  4. Oxygen insufflation and partial opioid reversal while monitoring the animal
Answer and working

D. Oxygen insufflation and partial opioid reversal while monitoring the animal

Opioid-induced hypoxaemia is a well-known problem in rhinoceroses; oxygen insufflation and partial reversal with an opioid antagonist or mixed agonist-antagonist improve ventilation. More opioid worsens it, dorsal recumbency compresses the lungs, and no dissociative antagonist exists.

Further reading: West, Heard & Caulkett, Zoo Animal and Wildlife Immobilization and Anesthesia

3 · Chemical immobilisation · medium

Why is ketamine not used alone to immobilise large felids?

  1. Alone it is too potent, so a dose fits in a dart only for small cats
  2. Alone it causes profound bradycardia that stops the heart within minutes
  3. Alone it causes muscle rigidity and convulsions, so a sedative is combined
  4. Alone it is rapidly reversed by atipamezole in the felid liver
Answer and working

C. Alone it causes muscle rigidity and convulsions, so a sedative is combined

Ketamine alone gives poor muscle relaxation, rigidity and seizure activity in felids, so it is combined with an alpha-2 agonist or benzodiazepine. Ketamine is not too potent, atipamezole does not reverse it, and it tends to support heart rate rather than cause asystole.

Further reading: West, Heard & Caulkett, Zoo Animal and Wildlife Immobilization and Anesthesia

4 · Chemical immobilisation · easy

What is the main reason captures of wild ungulates are planned for the cool part of the day?

  1. Because immobilising drugs are inactivated by sunlight
  2. Because darts fly further and straighter in cold air
  3. To reduce the risk of hyperthermia and capture myopathy
  4. Because animals are always asleep in the early morning
Answer and working

C. To reduce the risk of hyperthermia and capture myopathy

Heat from exertion, environment and drug effects causes hyperthermia, which also predisposes to capture myopathy, so captures are timed for cool hours. Dart flight, sunlight inactivation and sleeping animals are not the reasons.

Further reading: West, Heard & Caulkett, Zoo Animal and Wildlife Immobilization and Anesthesia

5 · Capture myopathy · medium

A translocated impala walks with a dropped hindquarter and hyperflexed hocks three days after capture. Which muscle is classically ruptured?

  1. Masseter
  2. Longissimus dorsi
  3. Diaphragm
  4. Gastrocnemius
Answer and working

D. Gastrocnemius

Ruptured muscle syndrome involves rupture of large hind-limb muscles, classically the gastrocnemius, giving a dropped hindquarter and hyperflexed hocks. The back, diaphragm and jaw muscles are not the classic site.

Further reading: West, Heard & Caulkett, Zoo Animal and Wildlife Immobilization and Anesthesia

6 · Tuberculosis and anthrax in wildlife · medium

How is the intradermal tuberculin test traditionally given and read in non-human primates?

  1. In the tail fold, read once at exactly 6 hours after injection
  2. In the cervical skin, read by measuring skin-fold thickness with callipers after 2 weeks
  3. In the footpad, read by thermal imaging at 12 hours after injection
  4. In the upper eyelid, read for swelling and drooping at 24, 48 and 72 hours
Answer and working

D. In the upper eyelid, read for swelling and drooping at 24, 48 and 72 hours

The palpebral test injects tuberculin into the upper eyelid, which is easily observed without handling, and it is read for swelling, erythema and ptosis over about three days. Cervical comparative testing is used in cattle and deer and read at 72 hours, not 2 weeks.

Further reading: Miller & Fowler, Fowler's Zoo and Wild Animal Medicine

7 · Tuberculosis and anthrax in wildlife · hard

A tuberculosis serological test for elephants has 90% sensitivity and 95% specificity. In a population with 5% prevalence, what is the positive predictive value?

  1. About 99%
  2. About 95%
  3. About 90%
  4. About 49%
Answer and working

D. About 49%

True positives = 0.9 × 0.05 = 0.045; false positives = 0.05 × 0.95 = 0.0475. PPV = 0.045 / 0.0925 = 0.486, about 49%. 90% is the sensitivity, 95% the specificity, and 99% is roughly the negative predictive value. At low prevalence half the positives are false, so confirmation is needed.

Further reading: Miller & Fowler, Fowler's Zoo and Wild Animal Medicine

8 · Rabies and FMD in wildlife · easy

What is the WOAH reference test for rabies diagnosis in a dead animal?

  1. The rapid immunochromatographic test on serum
  2. Histology to search for Negri bodies in sections of the liver and spleen
  3. The direct fluorescent antibody test on fresh brain tissue
  4. Culture of saliva on blood agar for 48 hours
Answer and working

C. The direct fluorescent antibody test on fresh brain tissue

The direct fluorescent antibody test on fresh brain tissue is the reference test. Negri bodies are found in neurons, not the liver, and histology is less sensitive; serum tests do not diagnose rabies in the dead animal, and the virus does not grow on bacterial media.

Further reading: Williams & Barker, Infectious Diseases of Wild Mammals

9 · Wildlife legislation · medium

A kestrel arrives at a rehabilitation centre with a healed but non-functional wing that prevents flight. What is the most appropriate outcome?

  1. Keep it in a small cage indefinitely as there is no legal alternative
  2. Release in a protected area where predators are excluded by fencing
  3. Release near where it was found because it can still hunt small prey by dropping from perches
  4. Euthanasia, or permanent captivity only if it has a clear purpose and good quality of life
Answer and working

D. Euthanasia, or permanent captivity only if it has a clear purpose and good quality of life

A raptor that cannot fly cannot hunt or escape predators, so release is not humane. The options are euthanasia or permanent captivity where the bird has a defined role and acceptable welfare. Release into fenced areas does not solve its inability to hunt, and indefinite caging without purpose is poor welfare.

Further reading: Miller & Fowler, Fowler's Zoo and Wild Animal Medicine

10 · Wildlife forensics · hard

Which markers are used to show that a seized rhinoceros horn came from a particular poached carcass?

  1. Nuclear microsatellites or SNP profiles matched between horn and carcass
  2. Schreger angles measured on a cross-section of the horn
  3. Hair medullary index measured from the horn fibres
  4. Mitochondrial cytochrome b sequences, which differ between every individual
Answer and working

A. Nuclear microsatellites or SNP profiles matched between horn and carcass

Individual identification needs highly variable nuclear markers such as microsatellites or SNPs; matching profiles link horn to carcass. Cytochrome b identifies species, not individuals; horn is compacted keratin, so hair medullary index and Schreger lines (an ivory feature) do not apply.

Further reading: Huffman & Wallace, Wildlife Forensics; Cooper & Cooper, Wildlife Forensic Investigation

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Read the subject

Wildlife, Zoo Animal & Conservation MedicineThe full study manual, free EBVS European College diplomasFormat, sections and how it has changed

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Wildlife, Zoo Animal & Conservation Medicine for other exams

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