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ICAR AIEEA-PG / PGS Food Microbiology: Spoilage, Pathogens & Detection: practice questions

ICAR AIEEA-PG / PGS — Code 18 Food Science Technology · India · ICAR through the National Testing Agency

Original practice questions written to the published syllabus · not past papers
10worked here, free
100written to this exam in this subject
14syllabus units

What this subject covers

Which microorganisms grow in which foods and why, the pathogens and toxins behind food-borne disease, and the methods — conventional, rapid and molecular — used to find them. The PG units on predictive microbiology and genomic surveillance carry it beyond the hygiene-focused milk and meat microbiology in the Veterinary track (milk-meat-hygiene-food-safety).

In the exams: GATE XE-G and XL-U Section 2 (spoilage, toxins from microbes); ICAR AIEEA-PG Code 18 Unit IV; ICAR AICE 35.b Units 2–4

What ICAR AIEEA-PG / PGS asks from it

ICAR AIEEA-PG / PGS — Code 18 Food Science Technology

Unit IV: spoilage of milk, meat, fish, eggs, cereals, fruits and vegetables and canned foods; pathogens and toxins; indicator organisms; microbiological examination; hygiene and safety regulations. Short recall MCQs on causal organisms of named spoilage defects (flat sour, rope, bitty cream, green rot) and on intoxication versus infection.

Where the 100 questions fall

How our questions for ICAR AIEEA-PG / PGS spread across the units of Food Microbiology: Spoilage, Pathogens & Detection. Difficulty: 38 easy, 44 medium, 18 hard.

Microbial spoilage of milk, meat, fish, eggs, cereals, fruits and vegetables12
Spore-formers and toxin producers: Clostridium botulinum, C. perfringens, Bacillus cereus and Staphylococcus aureus10
Spoilage of canned, bakery and beverage products9
Bacterial food-borne pathogens: Salmonella, Listeria, E. coli (STEC), Campylobacter, Shigella, Vibrio and Yersinia9
Intrinsic and extrinsic factors controlling microbial growth8
Conventional methods: plate count, MPN, selective media and confirmation8
Mycotoxigenic moulds: Aspergillus, Penicillium and Fusarium7
Food-borne viruses and parasites7
Indicator and index organisms6
Molecular methods: PCR, qPCR and whole-genome sequencing6
Predictive microbiology: primary and secondary models5
Microbiological criteria and sampling plans5
Rapid methods: ATP bioluminescence, immunoassays and lateral flow4
Biofilms in food plants4

10 practice questions, worked

Choose an answer, then open the working. Each explanation says why the right answer is right and why the others are not.

1 · Intrinsic and extrinsic factors controlling microbial growth · medium

A food has a water activity of 0.85. At what relative humidity of the surrounding air will it neither gain nor lose moisture?

  1. 15%
  2. 8.5%
  3. 85%
  4. 0.85%
Answer and working

C. 85%

Equilibrium relative humidity = aw × 100 = 0.85 × 100 = 85%. 15% is 100 − 85, a confusion with the moisture deficit; 0.85% forgets the factor of 100.

Further reading: Jay, Loessner and Golden, Modern Food Microbiology, ch. 3

2 · Bacterial food-borne pathogens: Salmonella, Listeria, E. coli (STEC), Campylobacter, Shigella, Vibrio and Yersinia · medium

Which characteristic helps distinguish E. coli O157:H7 from most other E. coli on selective plating media?

  1. It grows only at 25 °C
  2. It does not ferment sorbitol within 24 hours
  3. It is oxidase positive
  4. It does not ferment glucose or produce gas in any medium
Answer and working

B. It does not ferment sorbitol within 24 hours

Most O157:H7 strains are sorbitol non-fermenting and β-glucuronidase negative, the basis of sorbitol MacConkey media. All E. coli ferment glucose and are oxidase negative.

Further reading: Doyle, Diez-Gonzalez and Hill, Food Microbiology: Fundamentals and Frontiers

3 · Spore-formers and toxin producers: Clostridium botulinum, C. perfringens, Bacillus cereus and Staphylococcus aureus · medium

Non-proteolytic (Group II) Clostridium botulinum is a particular hazard in chilled vacuum-packed foods because it:

  1. Has spores more heat resistant than proteolytic strains
  2. Grows at water activities down to about 0.85 in dried products
  3. Grows and forms toxin at temperatures as low as about 3 °C
  4. Grows at a pH as low as 3.5 in acidified products
Answer and working

C. Grows and forms toxin at temperatures as low as about 3 °C

Group II strains grow at about 3 °C, need aw about 0.97 and pH above about 5.0, and have spores of lower heat resistance than Group I.

Further reading: Doyle, Diez-Gonzalez and Hill, Food Microbiology: Fundamentals and Frontiers

4 · Spore-formers and toxin producers: Clostridium botulinum, C. perfringens, Bacillus cereus and Staphylococcus aureus · hard

D121 for proteolytic C. botulinum spores is taken as 0.21 min. What minimum F0 does a 12D botulinum cook require?

  1. 1.75 min
  2. 12.0 min
  3. 2.52 min
  4. 0.21 min
Answer and working

C. 2.52 min

F0 = 12 × D121 = 12 × 0.21 = 2.52 min. 12.0 min confuses 12D with 12 minutes; 1.75 min divides 0.21 by 0.12.

Further reading: Doyle, Diez-Gonzalez and Hill, Food Microbiology: Fundamentals and Frontiers

5 · Conventional methods: plate count, MPN, selective media and confirmation · medium

Why is a non-selective pre-enrichment step used before selective enrichment in Salmonella detection?

  1. To remove fat and other inhibitors that would otherwise block the serological confirmation tests
  2. To kill competing Gram-positive bacteria before plating
  3. To let sublethally injured cells recover before they meet selective agents
  4. To count the Salmonella present before enrichment begins
Answer and working

C. To let sublethally injured cells recover before they meet selective agents

Processing injures cells, and injured cells are killed by selective agents. Buffered peptone water lets them repair first.

Further reading: US FDA Bacteriological Analytical Manual; ISO 6579-1, ISO 11290-1, ISO 4833-1

6 · Molecular methods: PCR, qPCR and whole-genome sequencing · hard

Which reagent is used in viability PCR to reduce amplification of DNA from dead cells?

  1. Propidium monoazide
  2. Proteinase K
  3. Uracil-N-glycosylase
  4. Ethidium bromide
Answer and working

A. Propidium monoazide

Propidium monoazide enters cells with damaged membranes and, after light activation, binds DNA so it cannot be amplified. Uracil-N-glycosylase prevents carry-over contamination instead.

Further reading: Doyle, Diez-Gonzalez and Hill, Food Microbiology: Fundamentals and Frontiers

7 · Biofilms in food plants · medium

Cells in a biofilm are much more resistant to sanitisers than the same cells in suspension mainly because:

  1. The matrix limits penetration, deep cells grow slowly and persister cells survive
  2. Biofilm cells convert to spores that sanitisers cannot penetrate
  3. Biofilm cells acquire resistance genes directly from the sanitiser molecules that reach them
  4. Sanitisers are designed to kill only free-floating planktonic cells
Answer and working

A. The matrix limits penetration, deep cells grow slowly and persister cells survive

The extracellular matrix binds and blocks active chemicals, slow-growing cells deep in the biofilm are less susceptible, and persisters survive.

Further reading: Doyle, Diez-Gonzalez and Hill, Food Microbiology: Fundamentals and Frontiers, biofilm chapter

8 · Microbiological criteria and sampling plans · easy

In an ICMSF two-class sampling plan, the symbol c means:

  1. The number of sample units tested from the lot
  2. The limit separating acceptable from unacceptable counts
  3. The upper limit separating marginal from unacceptable counts
  4. The maximum number of sample units allowed to exceed m
Answer and working

D. The maximum number of sample units allowed to exceed m

n is the number of units tested, m the limit, c the maximum number of defective units allowed; M is used only in three-class plans.

Further reading: ICMSF, Microorganisms in Foods 7; Codex CXG 21-1997; Regulation (EC) No 2073/2005

9 · Spoilage of canned, bakery and beverage products · easy

Swollen cans are described in increasing order of severity as:

  1. Hard swell, soft swell, springer, flipper
  2. Soft swell, flipper, hard swell, springer
  3. Flipper, springer, soft swell, hard swell
  4. Springer, flipper, hard swell, soft swell
Answer and working

C. Flipper, springer, soft swell, hard swell

A flipper's end flips out when struck; a springer's end springs back when pressed; a soft swell can be pushed in; a hard swell cannot.

Further reading: Adams, Moss and McClure, Food Microbiology; Stumbo, Thermobacteriology in Food Processing

10 · Predictive microbiology: primary and secondary models · medium

Which of the following is a primary growth model?

  1. Gamma concept model
  2. Ratkowsky square-root model
  3. Cardinal parameter model
  4. Baranyi and Roberts model
Answer and working

D. Baranyi and Roberts model

Baranyi and Roberts describes numbers against time (primary). The square-root, gamma and cardinal parameter models describe how growth parameters depend on conditions (secondary).

Further reading: McKellar and Lu, Modeling Microbial Responses in Food

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Food Microbiology: Spoilage, Pathogens & DetectionThe full study manual, free ICAR AIEEA-PG / PGSFormat, sections and how it has changed

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Food Microbiology: Spoilage, Pathogens & Detection for other exams

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