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Australasian Veterinary Examination, formerly the National Veterinary Examination Preventive Veterinary Medicine II: Viral and Parasitic Diseases: practice questions

Australasian Veterinary Examination (AVE), formerly the National Veterinary Examination (NVE) · Australia / New Zealand · Australasian Veterinary Boards Council (AVBC)

Original practice questions written to the published syllabus · not past papers
10worked here, free
49written to this exam in this subject
15syllabus units

What this subject covers

The viral and parasitic diseases of farm and companion animals, national control programmes and the international role of WOAH.

In the exams: ICAR AICE-JRF core group 07 (Medicine); SAVC Paper 4 State veterinary medicine 35; NAVLE veterinary public health 4%; China infectious diseases 30

Where the 49 questions fall

How our questions for Australasian Veterinary Examination, formerly the National Veterinary Examination spread across the units of Preventive Veterinary Medicine II: Viral and Parasitic Diseases. Difficulty: 11 easy, 27 medium, 11 hard.

Canine distemper, canine parvovirus and infectious canine hepatitis6
Helminthoses6
Rabies5
Viral diseases of horses5
Babesiosis and theileriosis5
Foot-and-mouth disease4
Bovine viral diarrhoea4
Feline panleukopenia3
Peste des petits ruminants2
Lumpy skin disease2
Bluetongue2
Classical and African swine fever2
Pox diseases1
Trypanosomosis1
National disease control programmes: FMD, brucellosis, rabies, HS and BQ1

10 practice questions, worked

Choose an answer, then open the working. Each explanation says why the right answer is right and why the others are not.

1 · Foot-and-mouth disease · easy

In an FMD epidemic, which species is described as the 'amplifier' host and why?

  1. Pigs: they exhale far more airborne virus
  2. Sheep, because they carry the virus silently and spread it through markets
  3. Cattle, because they show the most obvious vesicles on the tongue and feet
  4. African buffalo, because they carry SAT viruses in the pharynx for years
Answer and working

A. Pigs: they exhale far more airborne virus

Pigs excrete very large quantities of virus in aerosol and so amplify spread. Cattle are the indicator hosts (most susceptible to inhaled virus, clear signs); sheep are maintenance hosts with mild signs; buffalo are long-term carriers, which is a different role.

2 · Foot-and-mouth disease · easy

In pigs, vesicles on the snout and feet cannot be attributed to FMD on clinical grounds. Which disease produces identical lesions?

  1. Classical swine fever
  2. Porcine circovirus type 2
  3. Swine erysipelas (diamond skin)
  4. Swine vesicular disease
Answer and working

D. Swine vesicular disease

Swine vesicular disease, vesicular stomatitis, vesicular exanthema and Senecavirus A all cause vesicles indistinguishable from FMD, so every vesicular disease in pigs is reported. Erysipelas causes raised diamond-shaped skin lesions, not vesicles.

3 · Peste des petits ruminants · medium

A flock of goats bought at a market develops fever, matted eyelids, foul-smelling erosions on the gums, profuse diarrhoea and coughing; several die. Which disease is most likely?

  1. Contagious caprine pleuropneumonia
  2. Haemonchosis with bottle jaw
  3. Contagious ecthyma (orf)
  4. Peste des petits ruminants
Answer and working

D. Peste des petits ruminants

Fever, oculonasal discharge, erosive stomatitis, diarrhoea and pneumonia together form the stomatitis-pneumoenteritis syndrome of PPR. CCPP causes pneumonia without the oral erosions and diarrhoea; orf causes proliferative scabs on the lips, not necrotic stomatitis with diarrhoea.

4 · Bluetongue · easy

Which sample and test are most appropriate to detect current bluetongue infection in a febrile ewe?

  1. Serum for a single competitive ELISA
  2. Whole blood in EDTA for RT-PCR
  3. Skin scraping for direct microscopy
  4. Faeces for a sedimentation test
Answer and working

B. Whole blood in EDTA for RT-PCR

RT-PCR on EDTA blood detects viral RNA in the viraemic animal. A single cELISA shows exposure, not current infection, and may be negative early. Faecal sedimentation and skin scrapings are parasitological tests.

5 · Rabies · medium

A farmer calls about a cow that is bellowing, straining and drooling, and he thinks something is stuck in her throat. What is the most important first step?

  1. Give a high dose of calcium intravenously for presumed milk fever
  2. Ask the farmer to put his hand in the mouth and feel for the obstruction
  3. Pass a stomach tube at once to dislodge the obstruction from the oesophagus and relieve bloat
  4. Treat rabies as possible and do not examine the mouth without gloves and protection
Answer and working

D. Treat rabies as possible and do not examine the mouth without gloves and protection

Rabid cattle often bellow, strain and salivate and mimic choke, which is a classic route of human exposure. Rabies must be considered before anyone puts a bare hand in the mouth. Passing a tube or giving calcium without that consideration exposes people and misses the diagnosis.

6 · Canine distemper, canine parvovirus and infectious canine hepatitis · medium

A clinic needs 5 L of disinfectant at 0.2% sodium hypochlorite to clean a parvovirus isolation ward. The stock bleach is 5% sodium hypochlorite. How much stock is needed?

  1. 2,000 ml
  2. 200 ml
  3. 1,000 ml
  4. 20 ml
Answer and working

B. 200 ml

C1 x V1 = C2 x V2: 5% x V1 = 0.2% x 5,000 ml, so V1 = 1,000 / 5 = 200 ml, made up to 5 L with water. 20 ml is a tenfold slip; 1,000 ml forgets to divide by the stock concentration; 2,000 ml reads 0.2% as 2%. Organic matter must be removed first, because it inactivates hypochlorite.

7 · Canine distemper, canine parvovirus and infectious canine hepatitis · hard

Why does WSAVA recommend that the final puppy core vaccine dose be given at 16 weeks of age or older?

  1. Maternal antibody can block vaccine responses until about 16 weeks in some puppies
  2. Earlier doses cause distemper in most puppies through vaccine reversion
  3. The puppy immune system cannot respond to any vaccine before 16 weeks
  4. Parvovirus infection does not usually occur before 16 weeks, so earlier doses waste vaccine
Answer and working

A. Maternal antibody can block vaccine responses until about 16 weeks in some puppies

Maternally derived antibody interferes with modified live vaccines for a variable period, up to about 16 weeks in some puppies, so the series continues every 2-4 weeks until 16 weeks or later. Puppies can respond earlier if maternal antibody is low, and parvovirus commonly infects puppies before 16 weeks.

8 · Viral diseases of horses · medium

On a yard, a mare aborts in late gestation and a week later a gelding develops hindlimb ataxia and dribbles urine. Which virus is most likely?

  1. Equine herpesvirus 1
  2. Equine infectious anaemia virus
  3. Equine herpesvirus 4
  4. Equine influenza virus
Answer and working

A. Equine herpesvirus 1

EHV-1 causes late-term abortion and equine herpesvirus myeloencephalopathy with ataxia and bladder dysfunction. EHV-4 causes mainly respiratory disease; influenza causes cough and fever; EIA causes fever, anaemia and oedema.

9 · Helminthoses · medium

In the FAMACHA system for small ruminants, which animals are normally drenched?

  1. Every animal in the flock at each check, whatever its individual score
  2. Those with pale to white conjunctivae, scoring 4 or 5
  3. Those with red conjunctivae, scoring 1 or 2
  4. Only animals with diarrhoea, whatever the score
Answer and working

B. Those with pale to white conjunctivae, scoring 4 or 5

FAMACHA scores the conjunctiva from 1 (red) to 5 (white), reflecting anaemia from Haemonchus. Treating only 4s and 5s (and sometimes 3s) leaves untreated worms in refugia and slows resistance. It does not measure diarrhoea-causing worms.

10 · National disease control programmes: FMD, brucellosis, rabies, HS and BQ · medium

A survey aims to show freedom from a disease with 95% confidence, assuming that if the disease were present at least 5% of animals in a large herd would be infected. With a perfect test, about how many randomly chosen animals must be tested, all negative?

  1. About 149
  2. About 95
  3. About 59
  4. 20
Answer and working

C. About 59

For a large population, n = ln(1 - confidence) / ln(1 - design prevalence) = ln(0.05) / ln(0.95) = 58.4, so about 59. 20 is just 1/0.05; about 149 is the answer for a 2% design prevalence; 95 confuses the confidence level with a sample size.

Ten here, 49 in the app. The Laisha app has every practice question we have written to Australasian Veterinary Examination, formerly the National Veterinary Examination in this subject, marked as you go, with timed papers, a jump-to-unanswered list and a certificate when you pass at 70 per cent.

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Read the subject

Preventive Veterinary Medicine II: Viral and Parasitic DiseasesThe full study manual, free Australasian Veterinary Examination, formerly the National Veterinary ExaminationFormat, sections and how it has changed

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Preventive Veterinary Medicine II: Viral and Parasitic Diseases for other exams

BCSE · USA / CanadaICAR AIEEA · IndiaNAVLE · USA / CanadaRCVS Statutory Membership Examination · UKSAVC Registration Examination · South AfricaENADE · BrazilNational Veterinary Examination · JapanNational Practising Veterinarian Qualification Examination · ChinaVeterinarian National Examination · South KoreaICAR AICE-JRF/SRF · India

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