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National Veterinary Examination Preventive Veterinary Medicine II: Viral and Parasitic Diseases: practice questions

National Veterinary Examination (獣医師国家試験) · Japan · Ministry of Agriculture, Forestry and Fisheries (MAFF), with the Veterinary Affairs Council

Original practice questions written to the published syllabus · not past papers
10worked here, free
35written to this exam in this subject
14syllabus units

What this subject covers

The viral and parasitic diseases of farm and companion animals, national control programmes and the international role of WOAH.

In the exams: ICAR AICE-JRF core group 07 (Medicine); SAVC Paper 4 State veterinary medicine 35; NAVLE veterinary public health 4%; China infectious diseases 30

Where the 35 questions fall

How our questions for National Veterinary Examination spread across the units of Preventive Veterinary Medicine II: Viral and Parasitic Diseases. Difficulty: 11 easy, 21 medium, 3 hard.

Canine distemper, canine parvovirus and infectious canine hepatitis5
Rabies4
Foot-and-mouth disease3
Bovine viral diarrhoea3
Feline panleukopenia3
Viral diseases of horses3
Helminthoses3
Lumpy skin disease2
Bluetongue2
Classical and African swine fever2
Babesiosis and theileriosis2
Peste des petits ruminants1
Pox diseases1
Trypanosomosis1

10 practice questions, worked

Choose an answer, then open the working. Each explanation says why the right answer is right and why the others are not.

1 · Foot-and-mouth disease · easy

In an FMD epidemic, which species is described as the 'amplifier' host and why?

  1. Pigs: they exhale far more airborne virus
  2. Sheep, because they carry the virus silently and spread it through markets
  3. Cattle, because they show the most obvious vesicles on the tongue and feet
  4. African buffalo, because they carry SAT viruses in the pharynx for years
Answer and working

A. Pigs: they exhale far more airborne virus

Pigs excrete very large quantities of virus in aerosol and so amplify spread. Cattle are the indicator hosts (most susceptible to inhaled virus, clear signs); sheep are maintenance hosts with mild signs; buffalo are long-term carriers, which is a different role.

2 · Foot-and-mouth disease · medium

A 3-week-old calf on a farm with an FMD outbreak dies suddenly without vesicles. What lesion would you expect at necropsy?

  1. Raised button ulcers scattered over the caecal and colonic mucosa
  2. Grey-white 'tiger heart' streaks in the myocardium
  3. Zebra striping along the folds of the rectum
  4. Haemorrhage at the base of the pulmonary artery
Answer and working

B. Grey-white 'tiger heart' streaks in the myocardium

Young animals die of FMD myocarditis, seen as pale streaks in the heart muscle. Button ulcers are classical swine fever, haemorrhage at the pulmonary artery base is bluetongue, and zebra stripes are typical of PPR and rinderpest.

3 · Foot-and-mouth disease · easy

In pigs, vesicles on the snout and feet cannot be attributed to FMD on clinical grounds. Which disease produces identical lesions?

  1. Classical swine fever
  2. Porcine circovirus type 2
  3. Swine erysipelas (diamond skin)
  4. Swine vesicular disease
Answer and working

D. Swine vesicular disease

Swine vesicular disease, vesicular stomatitis, vesicular exanthema and Senecavirus A all cause vesicles indistinguishable from FMD, so every vesicular disease in pigs is reported. Erysipelas causes raised diamond-shaped skin lesions, not vesicles.

4 · Peste des petits ruminants · medium

A flock of goats bought at a market develops fever, matted eyelids, foul-smelling erosions on the gums, profuse diarrhoea and coughing; several die. Which disease is most likely?

  1. Contagious caprine pleuropneumonia
  2. Haemonchosis with bottle jaw
  3. Contagious ecthyma (orf)
  4. Peste des petits ruminants
Answer and working

D. Peste des petits ruminants

Fever, oculonasal discharge, erosive stomatitis, diarrhoea and pneumonia together form the stomatitis-pneumoenteritis syndrome of PPR. CCPP causes pneumonia without the oral erosions and diarrhoea; orf causes proliferative scabs on the lips, not necrotic stomatitis with diarrhoea.

5 · Bluetongue · easy

Which sample and test are most appropriate to detect current bluetongue infection in a febrile ewe?

  1. Serum for a single competitive ELISA
  2. Whole blood in EDTA for RT-PCR
  3. Skin scraping for direct microscopy
  4. Faeces for a sedimentation test
Answer and working

B. Whole blood in EDTA for RT-PCR

RT-PCR on EDTA blood detects viral RNA in the viraemic animal. A single cELISA shows exposure, not current infection, and may be negative early. Faecal sedimentation and skin scrapings are parasitological tests.

6 · Rabies · medium

An apparently healthy, vaccinated pet dog bites a child. What is the standard veterinary action in many countries?

  1. Collect saliva for a serum antibody test and release the dog
  2. Confine and observe the dog for 10 days, testing it if signs appear
  3. Euthanase the dog at once and send the whole body for histology
  4. Revaccinate the dog and release it to the owner the same day
Answer and working

B. Confine and observe the dog for 10 days, testing it if signs appear

A dog or cat that is still healthy 10 days after a bite was not shedding virus when it bit. Immediate euthanasia is not needed for a healthy animal; revaccination does not answer whether the dog was infectious, and antibody in serum does not diagnose rabies.

7 · Canine distemper, canine parvovirus and infectious canine hepatitis · hard

Why does WSAVA recommend that the final puppy core vaccine dose be given at 16 weeks of age or older?

  1. Maternal antibody can block vaccine responses until about 16 weeks in some puppies
  2. Earlier doses cause distemper in most puppies through vaccine reversion
  3. The puppy immune system cannot respond to any vaccine before 16 weeks
  4. Parvovirus infection does not usually occur before 16 weeks, so earlier doses waste vaccine
Answer and working

A. Maternal antibody can block vaccine responses until about 16 weeks in some puppies

Maternally derived antibody interferes with modified live vaccines for a variable period, up to about 16 weeks in some puppies, so the series continues every 2-4 weeks until 16 weeks or later. Puppies can respond earlier if maternal antibody is low, and parvovirus commonly infects puppies before 16 weeks.

8 · Viral diseases of horses · medium

On a yard, a mare aborts in late gestation and a week later a gelding develops hindlimb ataxia and dribbles urine. Which virus is most likely?

  1. Equine herpesvirus 1
  2. Equine infectious anaemia virus
  3. Equine herpesvirus 4
  4. Equine influenza virus
Answer and working

A. Equine herpesvirus 1

EHV-1 causes late-term abortion and equine herpesvirus myeloencephalopathy with ataxia and bladder dysfunction. EHV-4 causes mainly respiratory disease; influenza causes cough and fever; EIA causes fever, anaemia and oedema.

9 · Trypanosomosis · medium

Several thin blood smears from a camel suspected of surra are negative. Which test improves sensitivity for detecting trypanosomes in blood?

  1. Repeating the thin smear stained with Ziehl-Neelsen
  2. Microhaematocrit centrifugation and examination of the buffy coat
  3. Faecal flotation in saturated sodium chloride
  4. Rose Bengal plate test on a single serum sample collected from the camel
Answer and working

B. Microhaematocrit centrifugation and examination of the buffy coat

Trypanosomes concentrate at the buffy coat after centrifugation (Woo method; Murray dark-ground buffy coat), which detects far lower parasitaemia than smears. Rose Bengal is a Brucella test; Ziehl-Neelsen stains acid-fast bacteria.

10 · Helminthoses · medium

In the FAMACHA system for small ruminants, which animals are normally drenched?

  1. Every animal in the flock at each check, whatever its individual score
  2. Those with pale to white conjunctivae, scoring 4 or 5
  3. Those with red conjunctivae, scoring 1 or 2
  4. Only animals with diarrhoea, whatever the score
Answer and working

B. Those with pale to white conjunctivae, scoring 4 or 5

FAMACHA scores the conjunctiva from 1 (red) to 5 (white), reflecting anaemia from Haemonchus. Treating only 4s and 5s (and sometimes 3s) leaves untreated worms in refugia and slows resistance. It does not measure diarrhoea-causing worms.

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Read the subject

Preventive Veterinary Medicine II: Viral and Parasitic DiseasesThe full study manual, free National Veterinary ExaminationFormat, sections and how it has changed

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Preventive Veterinary Medicine II: Viral and Parasitic Diseases for other exams

Australasian Veterinary Examination, formerly the National Veterinary Examination · Australia / New ZealandBCSE · USA / CanadaICAR AIEEA · IndiaNAVLE · USA / CanadaRCVS Statutory Membership Examination · UKSAVC Registration Examination · South AfricaENADE · BrazilNational Practising Veterinarian Qualification Examination · ChinaVeterinarian National Examination · South KoreaICAR AICE-JRF/SRF · India

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