ICAR AIEEA (PG): Master's entrance, Veterinary Science and Animal Sciences · India · NTA for ICAR
Original practice questions written to the published syllabus · not past papersThe viral and parasitic diseases of farm and companion animals, national control programmes and the international role of WOAH.
In the exams: ICAR AICE-JRF core group 07 (Medicine); SAVC Paper 4 State veterinary medicine 35; NAVLE veterinary public health 4%; China infectious diseases 30
ICAR AIEEA (PG) — Veterinary Science (code 13)
Agent families and serotypes (FMD seven serotypes, bluetongue orbivirus and Culicoides, ASF as the DNA arbovirus), vaccine strains (Nigeria 75/1 and Sungri 96 for PPR, lapinised CSF, Neethling for LSD), diagnostic tests (dFAT for rabies, Coggins for EIA, Koch's blue bodies) and vectors of blood protozoa.
How our questions for ICAR AIEEA spread across the units of Preventive Veterinary Medicine II: Viral and Parasitic Diseases. Difficulty: 20 easy, 21 medium, 8 hard.
| Foot-and-mouth disease | 5 | |
| Peste des petits ruminants | 4 | |
| Classical and African swine fever | 4 | |
| Trypanosomosis | 4 | |
| Helminthoses | 4 | |
| National disease control programmes: FMD, brucellosis, rabies, HS and BQ | 4 | |
| The role of WOAH | 4 | |
| Pox diseases | 3 | |
| Babesiosis and theileriosis | 3 | |
| Rinderpest: the eradication case study | 2 | |
| Lumpy skin disease | 2 | |
| Bluetongue | 2 | |
| Rabies | 2 | |
| Bovine viral diarrhoea | 2 | |
| Viral diseases of horses | 2 | |
| Canine distemper, canine parvovirus and infectious canine hepatitis | 1 | |
| Feline panleukopenia | 1 |
Choose an answer, then open the working. Each explanation says why the right answer is right and why the others are not.
How many serotypes of foot-and-mouth disease virus are recognised?
C. Seven: O, A, C, Asia 1, SAT 1, SAT 2 and SAT 3
There are seven immunologically distinct serotypes (O, A, C, Asia 1, SAT 1-3), and immunity to one does not protect against another. Nine serotypes is African horse sickness, and the 'one serotype' idea fits PPR, not FMD.
Which statement about the FMD carrier state is correct?
C. Recovered and vaccinated ruminants can; pigs cannot
Ruminants, including vaccinated ones that become infected, can carry virus in the pharynx for weeks to years (buffalo for years); pigs do not become carriers. Mild disease in sheep makes them hard to detect, not incapable of carrying the virus.
What is the target date and strategy named in the global plan to eradicate PPR?
C. Eradication by 2030 under the FAO-WOAH Global Control and Eradication Strategy
FAO and WOAH launched the PPR Global Control and Eradication Strategy in 2015 with eradication targeted for 2030. GREP was the rinderpest programme, PCP is the FMD pathway, and 'Zero by 30' is the dog-mediated rabies plan.
Bluetongue virus is transmitted mainly by which vector?
A. Biting midges of the genus Culicoides
Bluetongue is an orbivirus spread by Culicoides midges, which is why it is seasonal. Hyalomma transmits Theileria annulata, Glossina transmits African trypanosomes, and Phlebotomus transmits Leishmania.
What does the global 'Zero by 30' strategy aim to achieve?
D. End human deaths from dog-mediated rabies by 2030
Zero by 30, backed by WHO, WOAH, FAO and the Global Alliance for Rabies Control, targets zero human deaths from dog-mediated rabies by 2030. It does not target wildlife rabies, and dog vaccination coverage is aimed at about 70%, not 30%.
A dairy farmer in South Asia milks buffaloes with pustules on the teats and develops similar lesions on his hands. Which infection is most likely?
C. Buffalopox, a vaccinia-like orthopoxvirus
Buffalopox causes teat and udder lesions in buffalo and cows in South Asia and spreads to milkers' hands. LSD is not zoonotic; fowlpox is a poultry virus; bovine papular stomatitis affects the mouths of young cattle.
The 'blue eye' seen in some dogs recovering from infectious canine hepatitis is caused by:
D. Immune-complex anterior uveitis leading to corneal oedema
Blue eye is an immune-complex (type III hypersensitivity) anterior uveitis with corneal oedema caused by CAdV-1. Using CAdV-2 in vaccines avoids this reaction while still protecting against CAdV-1.
Which tick genus transmits Theileria annulata, the cause of tropical theileriosis?
D. Hyalomma
T. annulata is transmitted by Hyalomma ticks. Rhipicephalus (Boophilus) microplus transmits Babesia bigemina and B. bovis; Ixodes ricinus transmits B. divergens in Europe; Ornithodoros soft ticks transmit ASF virus.
Several thin blood smears from a camel suspected of surra are negative. Which test improves sensitivity for detecting trypanosomes in blood?
B. Microhaematocrit centrifugation and examination of the buffy coat
Trypanosomes concentrate at the buffy coat after centrifugation (Woo method; Murray dark-ground buffy coat), which detects far lower parasitaemia than smears. Rose Bengal is a Brucella test; Ziehl-Neelsen stains acid-fast bacteria.
Within how long of confirmation must a country send WOAH an immediate notification of the first occurrence of a listed disease?
D. 24 hours
Immediate notifications are due within 24 hours of confirmation, through WAHIS. Six-monthly reports are the routine presence-or-absence reports; 7 and 30 days are not the standard.
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