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ICAR AICE-JRF/SRF Veterinary Protozoology: practice questions

ICAR AICE-JRF/SRF (PhD) · India · NTA for ICAR

Original practice questions written to the published syllabus · not past papers
10worked here, free
24written to this exam in this subject
13syllabus units

About ICAR AICE-JRF/SRF

ICAR AICE-JRF/SRF (PhD) is a PhD, fellowship and lectureship exam run by NTA for ICAR, for candidates in India. Computer-based, 2 hours, 120 questions: Part A 20 (general agriculture, animal husbandry, current events), Part B 50 (core group), Part C 50 (specialised subject). +4 / -1, maximum 480.

Source: icar.org.in.

Checked against the exam body's published information. Formats and fees change; confirm the current edition there before you book.

Veterinary Protozoology in ICAR AICE-JRF/SRF

Deeper biology: antigenic variation of trypanosomes, host-cell transformation by Theileria, endemic stability, immune responses in leishmaniosis, vaccine strategies (attenuated schizont vaccines, infection-and-treatment, live Babesia and coccidial vaccines), mechanisms of drug action and resistance, molecular diagnosis and genotyping.

Blood and gut protozoa of domestic animals, including trypanosomes, Babesia, Theileria and coccidia, with Anaplasma taught alongside, and their diagnosis and treatment.

Our 24 ICAR AICE-JRF/SRF questions in this subject: 0 easy, 6 medium, 18 hard, across 13 units.

10 practice questions, worked

Choose an answer, then open the working. Each explanation says why the right answer is right and why the others are not.

These 10 were written to ICAR AICE-JRF/SRF and are not shown on any other exam's page.

Question 1 · hard

The feature of Theileria parva and T. annulata schizonts that underlies their pathogenicity is that they:

  1. Live free in plasma and evade antibody by antigenic variation of their surface coat
  2. Lyse red cells synchronously every 48 hours
  3. Transform the host leucocyte so that it proliferates, and divide in step with it
  4. Produce a potent exotoxin that damages the lungs directly
Answer and working

C. Transform the host leucocyte so that it proliferates, and divide in step with it

The schizont induces uncontrolled division of the infected lymphocyte or macrophage and segregates into both daughter cells, producing a clonal expansion of infected cells through lymphoid tissues. Antigenic variation in plasma describes trypanosomes.

Question 2 · medium

The infection-and-treatment method of immunising cattle against East Coast fever involves:

  1. Using a schizont-infected cell line attenuated by long passage in culture
  2. Inoculating live T. parva sporozoites together with a long-acting tetracycline
  3. Injecting a killed whole-parasite vaccine with an oil adjuvant into calves at weaning
  4. Giving buparvaquone monthly throughout the tick season
Answer and working

B. Inoculating live T. parva sporozoites together with a long-acting tetracycline

ITM gives a controlled live sporozoite infection while oxytetracycline suppresses schizont development, leaving the animal immune (often as a carrier). The attenuated schizont cell-culture vaccine is the approach used for T. annulata.

Question 3 · hard

Which test is most suitable for identifying carrier cattle persistently infected with Anaplasma marginale before export?

  1. A single Giemsa-stained blood film
  2. Competitive ELISA based on major surface protein 5, or PCR
  3. The Sabin-Feldman dye test
  4. Faecal flotation for oocysts
Answer and working

B. Competitive ELISA based on major surface protein 5, or PCR

Carriers have parasitaemias far below the level detectable in smears; MSP5 cELISA detects antibody in all Anaplasma species infections, and PCR detects the organism. The dye test is for Toxoplasma.

Question 4 · hard

Why is a low faecal oocyst count not sufficient to rule out clinical coccidiosis in a calf with bloody diarrhoea?

  1. Severe damage from late meronts and gamonts can occur before, or just as, oocyst shedding starts
  2. Oocyst counts are only valid in poultry, where species have been calibrated against lesion scores
  3. Pathogenic species never produce oocysts
  4. Oocysts of the pathogenic species usually float poorly in standard salt solutions and are missed
Answer and working

A. Severe damage from late meronts and gamonts can occur before, or just as, oocyst shedding starts

Clinical signs can begin at or just before the end of the prepatent period, so counts may be low when the animal is worst. Pathogenic species do produce oocysts and float normally; OPG is used in all species but must be interpreted with species and clinical findings.

Question 5 · medium

Which feature explains why Cryptosporidium causes waterborne outbreaks in people and persistent contamination of calf pens?

  1. Oocysts are infective when passed and resist chlorine at drinking-water concentrations
  2. Oocysts must sporulate for about two weeks in moist soil before they become infective to calves
  3. Transmission requires an intermediate host snail
  4. Oocysts are killed by drying within minutes
Answer and working

A. Oocysts are infective when passed and resist chlorine at drinking-water concentrations

Oocysts sporulate inside the host, so they are immediately infective, and they are highly resistant to chlorine and many disinfectants. They do not need an environmental maturation period or an intermediate host.

Question 6 · hard

Cryptosporidium andersoni in adult cattle differs from C. parvum in that it:

  1. Causes haemorrhagic typhlitis in adult cows kept on wet pasture
  2. Is the main zoonotic species acquired by students and farmers handling young scouring calves on dairy farms
  3. Infects the respiratory tract of chickens
  4. Infects the abomasal glands and is linked to reduced milk yield rather than neonatal diarrhoea
Answer and working

D. Infects the abomasal glands and is linked to reduced milk yield rather than neonatal diarrhoea

C. andersoni lives in the abomasum of older cattle and causes production loss; C. parvum is the neonatal intestinal and zoonotic species; C. baileyi infects the chicken respiratory tract.

Question 7 · hard

Why is there no approved drug treatment for bovine trichomonosis in the EU and USA?

  1. The effective nitroimidazoles are prohibited in food-producing animals
  2. Treatment is unnecessary because bulls clear infection within days
  3. The parasite is resistant to every known drug class
  4. Cattle cannot absorb oral drugs
Answer and working

A. The effective nitroimidazoles are prohibited in food-producing animals

Nitroimidazoles are active against trichomonads but are banned in food animals because of residue and carcinogenicity concerns, so control relies on AI, testing and culling bulls, and vaccination of cows where available. Older bulls do not clear infection.

Question 8 · hard

Which statement best describes the current treatment situation for histomonosis in food-producing turkeys in the EU and USA?

  1. A live attenuated vaccine is universally licensed and routinely used in all commercial flocks
  2. Ionophores are licensed for turkeys and are fully effective in treating outbreaks once signs appear
  3. Tetracyclines in water are the approved first-line treatment
  4. The former nitroimidazoles and arsenicals are no longer available, so control relies on prevention
Answer and working

D. The former nitroimidazoles and arsenicals are no longer available, so control relies on prevention

Nitroimidazoles were banned and nitarsone withdrawn, leaving no effective licensed drug. Prevention (separation from chickens, Heterakis control, biosecurity) is the mainstay. No universally licensed vaccine exists.

Question 9 · hard

Why is canine leishmaniosis by L. infantum a One Health concern in the Mediterranean and Brazil, whereas dogs are not central to kala-azar control in India?

  1. L. infantum (the Mediterranean species) does not infect people
  2. Kala-azar in India is transmitted by triatomine bugs that never feed on dogs, so dogs cannot act as a source of infection
  3. Dogs are the main reservoir of zoonotic L. infantum, whereas Indian kala-azar (L. donovani) is anthroponotic
  4. Indian sand flies cannot feed on dogs
Answer and working

C. Dogs are the main reservoir of zoonotic L. infantum, whereas Indian kala-azar (L. donovani) is anthroponotic

L. infantum visceral leishmaniasis is zoonotic with the dog as reservoir; L. donovani in the Indian subcontinent is transmitted mainly person to person via sand flies. L. infantum does infect people, and triatomines carry T. cruzi.

Question 10 · medium

Why does bovine trichomonosis often go undetected on a farm for a long time?

  1. Infected cows abort in late pregnancy with obvious foetal lesions
  2. It affects only calves, which are rarely examined
  3. Bulls show no signs, and in cows the main effect is early embryonic death that looks like infertility
  4. It causes sudden death in adult cows, which is usually attributed to bloat, clostridial disease or lightning
Answer and working

C. Bulls show no signs, and in cows the main effect is early embryonic death that looks like infertility

The herd problem is poor fertility, irregular returns and a prolonged calving season rather than sick animals. Abortions, when they occur, are early. Bulls are asymptomatic carriers.

A study plan for Veterinary Protozoology in ICAR AICE-JRF/SRF

This plan follows where our questions actually fall, so the time goes where the marks are likely to be. It is our reading of the syllabus, not the exam body's weighting.

  1. First, the heavy units (46% of the 24 questions): Trypanosoma and surra (3, 13%); Anaplasma (rickettsial, taught alongside protozoa) (2, 8%); Antiprotozoal chemotherapy (2, 8%); Cryptosporidium (2, 8%); Diagnosis of protozoal infections (2, 8%).

    Read the manual chapters for these first and do every worked question you can find on them.

  2. Then the middle band: Eimeria and coccidiosis (2, 8%); Leishmania (2, 8%); Theileria (2, 8%); Toxoplasma (2, 8%); Trichomonas (2, 8%).

    Aim for one sitting per unit, then mixed questions across them.

  3. Then the lighter units: Babesia (1, 4%); Giardia (1, 4%); Histomonas (1, 4%).

    Learn the definitions, classifications and standard numbers; these units are more often recalled than worked.

  4. Leave time for the hard ones: Antiprotozoal chemotherapy (2 hard of 2), Eimeria and coccidiosis (2 hard of 2), Leishmania (2 hard of 2).

    Come back to these after a first pass, untimed, and read every explanation, including for the options you rejected.

  5. Finish timed. Sit the subject as a timed set without notes, mark it, and send each wrong answer back to its unit above.

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