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TNPSC Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science, Code 396 Preventive Veterinary Medicine I: Bacterial, Fungal, Rickettsial and Mycoplasmal Diseases: practice questions

TNPSC Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science (Degree Standard), Code 396 · India · Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission

Original practice questions written to the published syllabus · not past papers
10worked here, free
30written to this exam in this subject
12syllabus units

About TNPSC Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science, Code 396

TNPSC Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science (Degree Standard), Code 396 is a government recruitment exam run by Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission, for candidates in India. 200 questions.

Source: tnpsc.gov.in.

Checked against the exam body's published information. Formats and fees change; confirm the current edition there before you book.

Preventive Veterinary Medicine I: Bacterial, Fungal, Rickettsial and Mycoplasmal Diseases in TNPSC Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science, Code 396

The bacterial and related infectious diseases of livestock and horses: clinical signs, diagnosis, treatment, prevention and control.

Our 30 TNPSC Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science, Code 396 questions in this subject: 15 easy, 12 medium, 3 hard, across 12 units.

10 practice questions, worked

Choose an answer, then open the working. Each explanation says why the right answer is right and why the others are not.

These 10 were written to TNPSC Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science, Code 396 and are not shown on any other exam's page.

Question 1 · medium

In India, state programmes schedule black quarter vaccination of cattle:

  1. Only after an outbreak is confirmed
  2. In calves under one month of age
  3. Only in bulls used for breeding
  4. Before the monsoon
Answer and working

D. Before the monsoon

Blackquarter and HS outbreaks follow the monsoon, so vaccination is given before it, and in outbreaks the in-contact herd is vaccinated as well. Very young calves are not the main target group, as disease peaks between 6 months and 2 years.

Question 2 · easy

A cow is found dead with dark, unclotted blood oozing from the nostrils and anus and rapid bloating. What should the veterinarian do first?

  1. Perform a full necropsy to examine the spleen
  2. Collect a peripheral blood smear without opening the carcass
  3. Send the whole carcass to the abattoir
  4. Bury the carcass immediately without any sample
Answer and working

B. Collect a peripheral blood smear without opening the carcass

These signs suggest anthrax. Opening the carcass lets vegetative cells sporulate and contaminate soil for decades, so an ear-vein smear stained with polychrome methylene blue is taken first. Burying without a sample loses the diagnosis and the notification.

Question 3 · medium

In an anthrax outbreak, a farmer asks to give long-acting oxytetracycline to all in-contact cattle on the same day as the live spore vaccine. What is the correct advice?

  1. Give both together, as they act synergistically
  2. Give vaccine only to animals already sick
  3. Do not overlap them, because the antimicrobial kills the live vaccine strain
  4. Use only the antimicrobial, because vaccination is contraindicated during any outbreak
Answer and working

C. Do not overlap them, because the antimicrobial kills the live vaccine strain

The Sterne vaccine is a live spore vaccine, and antimicrobials given around vaccination kill it and prevent immunity; national instructions set the interval between treatment and vaccination. Vaccination is the main tool in outbreaks, not a contraindication.

Question 4 · easy

Under India's National Animal Disease Control Programme, brucellosis vaccination with strain 19 is given to:

  1. Female bovine calves aged 4-8 months, once in a lifetime
  2. All adult cows annually
  3. Bulls before breeding
  4. Pregnant cows in the last trimester, with a yearly booster
Answer and working

A. Female bovine calves aged 4-8 months, once in a lifetime

NADCP vaccinates female cattle and buffalo calves at 4-8 months, once. S19 in pregnant animals can cause abortion, and in adults can cause persistent antibody that confuses testing.

Question 5 · medium

Which stain is used on placental cotyledon smears to demonstrate Brucella?

  1. Polychrome methylene blue
  2. Gram stain with safranin counterstain for spores
  3. Modified Ziehl-Neelsen (Stamp's) stain
  4. Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
Answer and working

C. Modified Ziehl-Neelsen (Stamp's) stain

Brucella resists decolorisation with weak acid in the modified ZN (Stamp) method and appears as red coccobacilli in clumps. Coxiella and Chlamydia also stain with MZN, so culture or PCR confirms.

Question 6 · easy

The mallein test for glanders is performed by injecting mallein:

  1. Into the caudal fold (as for the bovine tuberculin test)
  2. Intradermally into the lower eyelid (intradermo-palpebral)
  3. Subcutaneously in the neck and reading the rectal temperature only
  4. Into the conjunctival sac as drops
Answer and working

B. Intradermally into the lower eyelid (intradermo-palpebral)

The intradermo-palpebral mallein test is read for swelling of the eyelid, conjunctivitis and purulent discharge at 24-48 hours. The caudal fold is used for tuberculin testing in some countries.

Question 7 · medium

Sulphur granules in pus from actinomycosis lesions are:

  1. Colonies of the organism surrounded by club-shaped deposits
  2. Crystals of calcium sulphate
  3. Degenerate neutrophils only
  4. Fungal spores
Answer and working

A. Colonies of the organism surrounded by club-shaped deposits

The yellow granules are bacterial colonies with radiating club-shaped deposits (the Splendore-Hoeppli phenomenon); crushed and Gram-stained, they show Gram-positive filaments.

Question 8 · easy

Penicillin is ineffective against mycoplasmas because they:

  1. Lack a cell wall
  2. Produce beta-lactamase in all strains
  3. Are intracellular in red cells
  4. Form resistant spores
Answer and working

A. Lack a cell wall

Beta-lactams act on cell-wall synthesis, which mycoplasmas do not have. Tetracyclines, macrolides and fluoroquinolones are the classes used where treatment is permitted.

Question 9 · easy

Which feature best distinguishes anaplasmosis from babesiosis in cattle?

  1. Absence of fever in anaplasmosis
  2. Absence of anaemia in anaplasmosis
  3. Absence of haemoglobinuria in anaplasmosis
  4. Anaplasmosis affects only calves
Answer and working

C. Absence of haemoglobinuria in anaplasmosis

Anaplasma-infected red cells are removed extravascularly, so there is anaemia and jaundice without red urine; babesiosis causes intravascular haemolysis with haemoglobinuria. Anaplasmosis is severe in adults, not calves.

Question 10 · easy

Favus of the comb and wattles in chickens is caused by:

  1. Trichophyton verrucosum
  2. Microsporum gallinae
  3. Aspergillus fumigatus
  4. Candida albicans
Answer and working

B. Microsporum gallinae

M. gallinae causes white scaly crusts on the comb (favus). Aspergillus causes respiratory disease and Candida causes crop mycosis (thrush).

A study plan for Preventive Veterinary Medicine I: Bacterial, Fungal, Rickettsial and Mycoplasmal Diseases in TNPSC Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science, Code 396

This plan follows where our questions actually fall, so the time goes where the marks are likely to be. It is our reading of the syllabus, not the exam body's weighting.

  1. First, the heavy units (50% of the 30 questions): Anthrax (4, 13%); Haemorrhagic septicaemia (4, 13%); Mastitis (4, 13%); Actinomycosis and actinobacillosis (3, 10%).

    Read the manual chapters for these first and do every worked question you can find on them.

  2. Then the middle band: Brucellosis (3, 10%); Clostridial diseases: black quarter, enterotoxaemia and tetanus (3, 10%); Glanders (3, 10%); Mycoplasmal diseases: CBPP and CCPP (2, 7%).

    Aim for one sitting per unit, then mixed questions across them.

  3. Then the lighter units: Anaplasmosis (1, 3%); Leptospirosis (1, 3%); Ringworm (1, 3%); Tuberculosis (1, 3%).

    Learn the definitions, classifications and standard numbers; these units are more often recalled than worked.

  4. Leave time for the hard ones: Actinomycosis and actinobacillosis (1 hard of 3), Brucellosis (1 hard of 3), Haemorrhagic septicaemia (1 hard of 4).

    Come back to these after a first pass, untimed, and read every explanation, including for the options you rejected.

  5. Bank the easy marks: Anaplasmosis (1 easy of 1); Leptospirosis (1 easy of 1).

    Do these early in revision so they are fast on the day.

  6. Finish timed. Sit the subject as a timed set without notes, mark it, and send each wrong answer back to its unit above.

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